The Westminster’s illogical Promotion of the Remarriage of the “innocent party”…
…exposed in light of Scripture.
Those who wrote the Westminster Confession of Faith realized that the “exception clause” alone would not hold up in light of the passages that stated that death was the only thing that dissolved a marriage.
1 Corinthians 7:39
The wife is bound by the law as long as her husband liveth; but if her husband be dead, she is at liberty to be married to whom she will; only in the Lord.
For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband.
So what did they do?
Did they admit that the “exception clause” did not give the “innocent party” a legitimate, lawful reason to remarry?
Of course not, since this would have been tantamount to saying that many in the “church” (and in the government) were adulterers!
In addition, allowing the remarriage of the “innocent party” on the basis of the reasoning that fornication dissolves the marriage bond necessarily allows the remarriage of the “guilty party”!
Consider: A man and a woman are married. The woman commits fornication, and the man and the woman divorce. If this act of fornication dissolves the marriage bond, then the man (the “innocent party”) is no longer bound to the wife for life.
And what of the wife?
Is she bound to the man for life?
Not if her act of fornication dissolves the marriage bond!
She, as the “guilty party,” is in the same position as the man; since the marriage bond has been dissolved, she is free to remarry, and this would not be adultery!
The whole point of the “innocent party” being allowed to remarry is moot!
And he saith unto them, Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her.
And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.
Whosoever putteth away his wife, and marrieth another, committeth adultery: and whosoever marrieth her that is put away from [her] husband (the innocent party) committeth adultery.
…All [men] cannot receive this saying, save [they] to whom it is given.
its impossible for a married woman to fornicate, if i read and understand the text correctly it says ‘that if a married woman commits fornication’ but she cannot if she is married, illegal sexual relations would be adultery. its important to distinguish between the meaning of the two words. also fornication is ‘an unclean thing’ in the law